I understand that the owner of two residential properties may "elect" which is their "main residence" for capital gains tax purposes on the sale of either. Can that be true? Or is it a question of provable "fact" rather than a matter of choice?
Maggie Fleming writes:
It is not quite as simple as that. Both properties have to be places where you reside - for example, a flat in London which you use during the week and a house in the country where you spend weekends and holidays. Secondly, the election must be made, in writing, within two years of acquiring the second residence - although it can be backdated to the date of purchase. Provided that a valid election has been made, it may be varied at any time thereafter and the variation can be back-dated by up to two years.
Where an election is made, the nominated property does not have to be the factual main residence; in other words, it does not have to be the residence in which you spend most of your time. You would normally select the property which stood to realise the largest capital gain on sale.
If no election is made within the two years, it becomes a question of fact and an inspector would want to know in which property you spend the majority of your time. If you and the Inland Revenue disagree, they would look at such factors as where you are registered for council tax and to vote, what address is shown on your driving licence (and tax return!) and where you are registered with a doctor.
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